NEST Exam Question Paper Previous Year 2007-2013 NISER : National Entrance Screening Test

Name of the Organisation : National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER) nestexam.in
Type of Announcement : NEST Model Question Paper – 2007 to 2012 National Entrance Screening Test

Previous NEST Question Papers :
NEST-2007 : https://www.indianjobtalks.in/uploads/6849-NEST-07.pdf
NEST-2008 : https://www.indianjobtalks.in/uploads/6849-NEST-08.pdf
NEST-2009 : https://www.indianjobtalks.in/uploads/6849-NEST-09.pdf
NEST-2010 : https://www.indianjobtalks.in/uploads/6849-NEST-10.pdf
NEST-2011 : https://www.indianjobtalks.in/uploads/6849-NEST-11.pdf
NEST-2012 : https://www.indianjobtalks.in/uploads/6849-NEST-12-A.pdf
NEST-2013 : https://www.indianjobtalks.in/uploads/6849-NEST-13-A.pdf
Home page : http://www.nestexam.in/

NEST Exam Related Content :
Admit Card for NEST 2014 National Entrance Screening Test : https://www.indianjobtalks.in/28451.html

General instructions :
1. This question booklet contains five sections. Each section carries 50 marks.
2. First section is General section and it is compulsory.
3. Sections 2 to 5 are for the subjects Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics. You should attempt only three of the four subject sections.
4. Pocket calculators, cell phones, log tables etc. are NOT permitted in the examination hall.
5. Answers to the questions are to be marked in the supplied OMR sheet.
6. Please make sure that question booklet code (A or B) matches with OMR sheet code (A or B) respectively. In case of discrepancy please inform the invigilator immediately.
7. Rough work may be done on separate blank sheets provided.
8. Return the OMR sheet to the invigilator at the end of examination.
9. Read the instructions given at the beginning of each section carefully.

Instructions for writing on OMR sheet :
1. Read and follow the instructions given on OMR sheet.
2. Write your name, roll number and other required information with ball-point pen in appropriate boxes provided. Sign your name with ball-point pen in the box provided.
3. In the remaining part of OMR sheet, use HB pencil only (as instructed). Make sure the bubbles are filled properly (as indicated in OMR sheet).
4. As far as possible, fill in the answers only after you are sure that you do not need to change them. In case you do have to change the answer after filling, erase the mark completely so that no black spot is left inside the bubble.
5. Ensure that you are filling the bubbles corresponding to correct sections and answers.
6. Your roll number (as given in the admit card) MUST BE ENTERED COR- RECTLY. If entered wrongly or not entered, the OMR sheet will be invalid and will not be graded.

1.1 Choose the correct statement.
(A) According to Carnot, the amount of work was proportional to change in tem- perature only.
(B) According to Joule, heat could be converted to mechanical work.
(C) According to Carnot, caloric was a form of energy.
(D) According to Clausius, total caloric content of a body was a unchangeable quantity.

1.2 Choose the correct statement about Lord Kelvin’s universal scale of temperature.
(A) According to Kelvin, efficiency of conversion from heat to mechanical energy can never be 100% for any temperature of the heat sink.
(B) Increments in temperature on the Kelvin scale were independent of the prop- erties of water.
(C) Kelvin chose a particular value as zero temperature based on atomic structure.
(D) Mathematical expressions like ideal gas equation hold for Kelvin scale only.

1.3 Arrange the following in chronological order from older to newer.
P: Principle of conservation of energy.
Q: Carnot cycle of heat engines.
R: Celsius scale of temperature.
S: Kelvin scale of temperature.
(A) R – Q – P – S. (B) R – Q – S – P. (C) P – Q – R – S. (D) S – R – Q – P.

1.4 Viruses can function as effective agents of evolution because
(A) they prevent occurrence of mutations in the host genome.
(B) they can integrate their genetic material in the host genome.
(C) they are capable of replicating outside a host.
(D) they do not accumulate mutations in a rapid manner.

1.5 Presence of a virus in a host need not necessarily imply manifestation of disease symp- toms because
(A) the virus may remain dormant in the host.
(B) viral DNA may be rapidly degraded in the host.
(C) the virus may undergo a slow rate of replication.
(D) All of the above.

1.6 Choose the incorrect statement.
(A) Human DNA may contain traces of ancient viruses.
(B) Viruses are dependent on their host for propagation.
(C) Adaptation to drastic changes in climate conditions does not contribute to genetic modification.
(D) Viruses lose their infective potential permanently once their host develops resistance.

1.9 Which of the following type of eclipses will be visible from the Moon?
(A) Total eclipse of the Earth. (B) Partial eclipse of the Earth.
(C) Total eclipse of the Sun. (D) Annular eclipse of the Sun.

1.11 An electronics store conducted a survey by asking every fourth person entering their store if they already owned a television set. On a given day out of 100 total respondents, 80 answered the question in the affirmative. Next day the same survey was conducted by choosing every fifth person entering the store and the number of respondents was again 100. Which of the following is the most likely number of respondents answering in the affirmative?
(A) 64 (B) 78 (C) 100 (D) 92

1.12 Choose the correct statement.
(A) Detergents are sodium salts of carboxylic acids.
(B) Soaps are sodium salts of sulfonic acids.
(C) Detergents form precipitate with calcium and magnesium ions.
(D) Soaps are generally biodegradable.

1.13 Which of the following date has been declared as “National Mathematics Day”?
(A) 28 February. (B) 22 June.
(C) 23 September. (D) 22 December.

1.14 Which of the following wildlife sanctuaries is not involved in “Project Tiger”?
(A) Corbett. (B) Gir. (C) Kanha. (D) Bandipur.

1.15 Who is known as father of ‘white revolution’?
(A) Verghese Kurien. (B) Sundar Lal Bahuguna.
(C) M. S. Swaminathan. (D) Birbal Sahni.

1.16 Which of the following is a primary source of gelatin used in ice-cream?
(A) Jellyfish. (B) Marine algae.
(C) Fruit skin. (D) Animal bones.

1.17 Hand-held GPS units in modern phones identify your location by
(A) transmitting their location and time to GPS satellites.
(B) receiving location data of GPS satellites.
(C) receiving time data from GPS satellites.
(D) exchanging location and time data with GPS satellites.

1.18 Which of the following is a strong smelling agent that is added to LPG to detect gas leakage?
(A) Ethanethiol. (B) Dimethyl sulfide.
(C) Dimethyl sulfone. (D) Hydrogen sulfide.

1.19 What is the principle behind the light emission by a firefly?
(A) Chemiluminescence. (B) Fluorescence.
(C) Phosphorescence. (D) Electroluminescence.

2.1 Which one of the following occurs during osmosis?
(A) The movement of water from a concentrated solution to a dilute solution across a semi-permeable membrane.
(B) The movement of a dissolved substance from a concentrated solution to a dilute solution across a semi-permeable membrane.
(C) The movement of water from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution across a semi-permeable membrane.
(D) The movement of a solute from a dilute solution across a semi-permeable mem- brane.

2.2 The umbilical artery carries blood from the fetus to the placenta and the umbilical vein carries blood from the placenta to the fetus. Which is the correct statement regarding differences in blood composition between the umbilical artery and vein?
(A) Blood in the umbilical artery contains less glucose than blood in the umbilical vein.
(B) Blood in the umbilical artery contains less carbon dioxide than blood in the umbilical vein.
(C) Blood in the umbilical artery contains more deoxygenated than blood in the umbilical vein.
(D) Blood in the umbilical artery contains less urea than blood in the umbilical vein.

2.3 Antibiotics are routinely used for controlling bacterial infections, but are ineffective against most viral infections. Why?
(A) Viruses are too small to be affected by antibiotics.
(B) Viruses have mechanisms to block the action of antibiotics.
(C) Antibiotics stimulate the immune system against bacteria but not viruses.
(D) Viruses do not have an independent metabolism.

2.4 Programmed cell death (PCD) is a tightly regulated process that is important in the growth and development of plants. In plants there are several tissues which become func- tional after undergoing PCD. Which of the following cells/tissues represent “functional corpses” arising due to PCD in plants?
(i) Cork cells in bark.
(ii) Sieve elements of phloem.
(iii) Companion cells of phloem.
(iv) Tracheary elements of xylem.
(A) (i) and (ii) only. (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only.
(C) (i) only. (D) (i) and (iv) only.

2.5 With reference to the nervous system, pick the correct statement from the options given below.
(A) A ganglion is a collection of cell bodies.
(B) A ganglion is a collection of axons.
(C) A nerve is a collection of cell bodies.
(D) A nerve is a collection of dendrites.