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SPMVV RESET Model Question Paper Research Entrance Test : MPhil, PhD

Name of the Organisation : Sri Padmavati Mahila Visvavidyalayam (spmvv.ac.in)
Type of Announcement : Model Question Paper
Designation : RESET Research Entrance Test MPhil, PhD

Model Question Paper https://www.indianjobtalks.in/uploads/9184-QP-resetfinal.pdf
Home Page : https://www.spmvv.ac.in/

SPMVV Last Update :
Result for RESET 2013-2014 : https://www.indianjobtalks.in/23467.html

Ph.D. Entrance Test – September, 2012
DEPARTMENT OF APPLIED MICROBIOLOGY
Time: 3 Hrs
Max.Marks:100
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks 5×20=100
1. Give an account of oxidation and biosynthesis of fatty acids.
2. What are Transposable elements. Describe the mechanism of transposition.
3. Describe the growth cycle of bacteria and the factors influencing it.
4. Discuss the difference between genomic and cDNA libraries and describe the methods for generation of cDNA libraries.
5. Give an account of methods of cultivation of viruses.
6. Describe the mode of action of antibacterial agents and add a not on the mechanism of drug resistance.
7. Describe recent trends in using microorganisms for environmental cleanup of contaminated and heavy metal polluted sites.
8. Give the principle and application of DNA fingerprinting techniques.

M.Phil./Ph.D. Entrance Test – September, 2012
DEPARTMENT OF BIOTECHNOLOGY
Time: 3 hours
Max.marks:100
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal marks (5X20=100)
1. Give a brief account of Genome organization in Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
2. Explain the principle and different methods of sterilization.
3. Write an essay on allosteric regulation of enzyme activities.
4. Explain the principle and mechanism of antigen and antibody interactions.
5. Enumerate the differences between Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Translational Mechanisms.
6. Write an essay on biosynthesis of fatty acids and glycolipids.
7. Explain the basic principles, types and applications of electrophoresis.
8. Write about the different methods of introduction of rDNA into host cells.

M.Phil./Ph.D. Entrance Test – September, 2012
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE
Time: 1 ½ hr
Max. Marks: 100
9. In immediate addressing mode the operand is placed
a) In the CPU register b) After the OP Code in the instruction
c) In the memory d) In the stack memory
10. Branch instructions are handled in pipelining using
a) Loop Buffer Strategy b) Prefetch Target instruction strategy
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
11. Which of the following remarks about the differences between constructors and destructors are correct?
a) Constructors can take arguments but destructors cannot.
b) Destructors can take arguments but constructors cannot.
c) Destructors can be overloaded but constructors cannot be overloaded.
d) None of the above.
12. A class having no name
a) cannot have a constructor. b) cannot have a destructor.
c) cannot be passed as an argument. d) all the above.
13. If a class C is derived from class B, which is derived from class A, all through public inheritance, then a class C member function can access
a) protected and public data only in C and B.
b) protected and public data only in C.
c) private data in A and B.
d) protected data in A and B.
14. Overloading the function operator
a) requires a class with an overloaded operator.
b) requires a class with an overloaded [ ] operator.
c) allows you to create objects that act syntactically like functions.
d) usually make use of a constructor that takes arguments.
15. Usually a pure virtual function
a) has complete function body. b) will never be called.
c) will be called only to delete an object. d) is defined only in derived class.
16. A property which is not true for classes is that they
a) are removed from memory when not in use.
b) permit data to be hidden from other classes.
c) bring together all aspects of an entity in one place.
d) can closely model objects in the real world.
17. An exception is caused by
a) a hardware problem
b) a problem in the operating system
c) a syntax error
d) a run-time error
18. Consider the following class definitions :
class a { };
class b: protected a {};
What happens when we try to compile this class?
a) Will not compile because class body of a is not defined.
b) Will not compile because class body of b is not defined.
c) Will not compile because class a is not public inherited.
d) Will compile successfully.
19. Which of the following is not the characteristic of constructor?
a) They should be declared in the public section.
b) They do not have return type.
c) They cannot be inherited.
d) They can be virtual.
20. Reusability is a desirable feature of a language as it
a) decreases the testing time.
b) reduces the compilation time.
c) reduces the execution time.
d) None of the above.
21. Overlays is
a) a part of Operating System.
b) a specific memory location.
c) a single contiguous memory that was used in the olden days for running large programs by swapping.
d) overloading the system with many user files.
22. Determine the number of page faults when references to pages occurs in the order 1,2,4,5,2,1,2,4. Assume that the main memory can accommodate 3 pages and the main memory already has the pages 1 and 2. With page 1 having been brought earlier that page 2(Assume LRU algorithm is used) ?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 4 d) None of the above.
23. A process can be put into a round-robin queue more than once for the purpose of
a) improving CPU utilization. b) improving response time.
c) solving starvation problem. d) giving it a higher priority.
24. An operating system contains 3 user processes each requiring 2 units of resource R.The minimum number of units of R such that no deadlocks will ever arise is
a) 4. b) 3. c) 5. d) 6.
25. Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the
a) processes tend to the I/O-bound. b) size of pages is reduced.
c) processes tend to be CPU-bound. d) locality of reference is applicable to the process.
26. Memory utilization factor shall be computed as follows
a) memory in use/allocated memory. b) memory in use/total memory connected.
c) memory allocated/free existing memory. d) memory committed/total memory available.
27. Which of the following approaches do not require knowledge of the system state?
a) deadlock detection. b) deadlock prevention.
c) deadlock avoidance. d) none of the above.
28. Consider a disk with a disk block of size 1 KB and disk block address of 16 bits for a disk of 80 MB. How many free blocks are used to keep track of if 50% of the total disk blocks are free?
a) 40 b) 160 c) 80 d) None of the above.
29. In a paged segmented scheme of memory management, the segment table itself must have a page table because
a) the segment table is often too large to fit in one page.
b) each segment is spread over a number of pages.
c) segment tables point to page tables and not to the physical location of the segment.
d) the processor’s description base register points to a page table.
30. In a multiprogramming environment
a) the processor executes more than one process at a time.
b) the programs are developed by more than one person.
c) more than one process resides in the memory.
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same time.

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